Wednesday, 12 January 2011

ISTQB Foundation Level Exam Sample Paper - I

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ISTQB Foundation level exam Sample paper - I
Questions
1    We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a)    Each test stage has a different purpose.
b)    It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c)    We can run different tests in different environments.
d)    The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2    Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a)    Regression testing
b)    Integration testing
c)    System testing
d)    User acceptance testing

3    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4    Which of the following requirements is testable?
a)    The system shall be user friendly.
b)    The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c)    The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d)    The system shall be built to be portable.

5    Analise the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20

ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50

ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75

ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a)    3
b)    4
c)    5
d)    6

6    Error guessing:
a)    supplements formal test design techniques.
b)    can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c)    is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d)    is not repeatable and should not be used.

7    Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a)    Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b)    A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c)    A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d)    Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8    In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:
a)    find as many faults as possible.
b)    test high risk areas.
c)    obtain good test coverage.
d)    test whatever is easiest to test.

9    Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v - test control
w - test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 -   calculation of required test resources
2 -   maintenance of record of test results
3 -   re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 -   report on deviation from test plan
5 -   tracking of anomalous test results
a)    v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b)    v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c)    v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d)    v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10    Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a)    System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b)    Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c)    Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d)    End-users should be involved in system tests.

11    Which of the following is false?
a)    Incidents should always be fixed.
b)    An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c)    Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d)    An incident can be raised against documentation.

12    Enough testing has been performed when:
a)    time runs out.
b)    the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c)    no more faults are found.
d)    the users won’t find any serious faults.

13    Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a)    Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b)    Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c)    Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d)    Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14    Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a)    syntax testing
b)    equivalence partitioning
c)    stress testing
d)    modified condition/decision coverage
15    Which of the following is false?
a)    In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b)    A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c)    A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d)    Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16    Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a)    They are used to support multi-user testing.
b)    They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c)    They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d)    They capture aspects of user behavior.

17    How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a)    Metrics from previous similar projects
b)    Discussions with the development team
c)    Time allocated for regression testing
d)    a & b

18    Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a)    It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b)    It only models the testing phase.
c)    It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d)    It includes the verification of designs.

19    The oracle assumption:
a)    is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b)    is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c)    is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d)    is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20    Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?
a)    They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b)    They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c)    Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d)    Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

21    Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a)    To find faults in the software.
b)    To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c)    To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d)    To prove that the software is correct.

22    Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a)    Boundary value analysis
b)    Usability testing
c)    Performance testing
d)    Security testing

23    Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a)    Features to be tested
b)    Incident reports
c)    Risks
d)    Schedule

24    Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a)    Test management
b)    Test design
c)    Test execution
d)    Test planning

25    Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a)    Statement testing
b)    Path testing
c)    Data flow testing
d)    State transition testing

26    Data flow analysis studies:
a)    possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b)    the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c)    the use of data on paths through the code.
d)    the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27    In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)    £1500
b)    £32001
c)    £33501
d)    £28000

28    An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a)    enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b)    can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c)    can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d)    are cheap to perform.

29    Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a)    Actual results
b)    Program specification
c)    User requirements
d)    System specification

30    What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a)    An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b)    An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c)    Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d)    A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31    Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a)    It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b)    It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c)    It reduces defect multiplication.
d)    It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32    Integration testing in the small:
a)    tests the individual components that have been developed.
b)    tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c)    only uses components that form part of the live system.
d)    tests interfaces to other systems.

33    Static analysis is best described as:
a)    the analysis of batch programs.
b)    the reviewing of test plans.
c)    the analysis of program code.
d)    the use of black box testing.

34     Alpha testing is:
a)    post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b)    the first testing that is performed.
c)    pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d)    pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35    A failure is:
a)    found in the software; the result of an error.
b)    departure from specified behavior.
c)    an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d)    a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36    In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a)    £4800; £14000; £28000
b)    £5200; £5500; £28000
c)    £28001; £32000; £35000
d)    £5800; £28000; £32000

37    The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a)    makes test preparation easier.
b)    means inspections are not required.
c)    can prevent fault multiplication.
d)    will find all faults.

38    Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a)    Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b)    Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c)    Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d)    Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39    Test cases are designed during:
a)    test recording.
b)    test planning.
c)    test configuration.
d)    test specification.

40    A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a)    linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b)    facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c)    the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d)    restricted access to the source code library.


Answers for above questions:
Question Answer
1     A
2     A
3     D
4     C
5     A
6     A
7     C
8     B
9     C
10   D
11   A
12   B
13   A
14   C
15   B
16   B
17   D
18   D
19   B
20   A
21   D
22   A
23   B
24   C
25   D
26   C
27   C
28   A
29   C
30   D
31   C
32   B
33   C
34   C
35   B
36   D
37   C
38   D
39   D
40   B

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Friday, 17 December 2010

QTP - Certification Q's3

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Q1. 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window.
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings

Q2. How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8

Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, WebSettings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web,Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery

Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)window
A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery

Q5. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation

Q6. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, acorresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above

Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False

Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False

Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values andinsert checkpoints
A) True
B) False

Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen informationsaved with the test.
A) True
B) False

Q11. The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:
A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors

Q12. When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTPautomatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in theinformation pane.
A) True
B) False

Q13. If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it incase a syntax error is detected.
A) True
B) False

Q14. ..................... provides a list of the resources that arespecified in your test but cannot be found.
A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane

Q15. Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automaticallychecks for the availability of specified resources.
A) True
B) False

Q16. The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.
A) True
B) False

Q17. Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command

Q18. ............... tab enables you to view the current value of anyvariable or VBScript expression.
A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current

Q19. The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that havebeen recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current

Q20. The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set ormodify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your testor function library.
A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current

Q21. Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A) True
B) False

Q22. Which of the following statement is True:
A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of testsat a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time

Q23. Which of the following statement is True:
A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time

Q24. You can open any function library, regardless of whether it isassociated with the currently open test.
A) True
B) False

Q25. You can work with multiple documents (test, component, orapplication area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box
A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows
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QTP - Certification Q's2

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Q1. The Command used to insert the transactions in test is:
A. StartTransaction(Name), EndTransaction(Name)
B. Services.StartTransaction "Name", Services.EndTransaction "Name"
C. StartTransaction.services "Name, EndTransaction.services "Name"

Q2. A step in which one or more values are captured at a specific point in your test and stored for the duration of the run session is:
A. Output Value
B. Checkpoints
C. Active Screen

Q3. QTP can detects an application crash and activate a defined recovery scenario to continue the run session.
A. True
B. false

Q4. In Batch Test process, the test list are saved in file format as:
A. *.mtb
B. *.mts
C. *.mbt
D. *.mtr

Q5. The command used to invoke other application from QTP:
A. InvokeApplication
B. SystemUtil.Run
C. Run
D. Both b & c
E. Both a & b

Q6. The command used to retrieve data from excel sheet is
A. Set ab = Connection("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getdata(sheetid)
B. Set ab = CreateObject("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getsheet(sheetid)
C. Set ab = GetObject("srcfilepath") , Set ws = ab.worksheets(sheetid)

Q7. The method that explicitly activates the recovery scenario mechanism is:
A. recovery.activate
B. enable
C. recovery.enable
D. activate

Q8. The method used for sending information to the test results is:
A. Reporter.log()
B. Reporter.reportevent()
C. Reporter.msgbox()
D. Reporter.report()

Q9. To terminate an application that is not responding we use:
A. SystemUtil.terminate
B. SystemUtil.Stop
C. SystemUtil.CloseProcessByName

Q10. The recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test:
A. false
B. True

Q11. We can add Test object methods, function calls into the Test using:
A. Function generator
B. Step generator
C. Object repository

Q12. The method that adds to the test while implementing synchronization is:
A. Synchronize
B. Wait
C. WaitProperty
D. Pause

Q13. The mechanism used to identify objects during run session is:
A. Recovery scenario
B. Smart identification
C. Handling object

Q14. Post-recovery test run options specifies:
A. how to continue the run session after QTP identify the event
B. errors while running
C. recovery scenario during a run session

Q15. The action that can be called multiple times by the test as well as by other tests is called:
A. non-reusable action
B. Reusable action
C. External action

Q16. The command used to connect with Database is:
A. Createobject(connectivity name
)
B. dbconnect(connectivity name)
C. open(connectivity name)
D. None of the above

Q17. The method used to retrieve the folders is:
A. FileSystemObject.Getfolder()
B. FileSystemObject.selectfolder()
C. FileSystemObject.retrievefolder()

Q18. The method used to compare 2 XML files is:
A1. XMLfile1.compare(XMLfile2)
B. XMLcompare(file1,file2)
C. compare(XMLfile1,XMLfile2)

Q19. The QTP script files are stored in the extension of:
A. *.mts
B. *.usr
C. *.mtr
D. *.vbs

Q20. The method used to register the user-defined function with test object is:
A. setFunc()
B. RegisterUserFunc()
C. RegisterFunc()

Q21. The method used to open the specified URL in a browser is:
A. openURL()
B. navigateURL()
C. navigate()

Q22. The 3 Parameter types available in data driver is:
A. DataTable,Environment,Random number
B. DataTable,random number,unique
C. environment,string,numeric

Q23. The method added to the test while parameterizing is:
A. get Data (variable, dtGlobalSheet)
B. get DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
C. Set Data(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
D. Set DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)

Q24. The length of the array can be get by the method:
A. length(array)
B. ubound(array)
C. count(array)

Q25. The method used to get the count value of list box or combo box is:
A. GetItemsCount
B. GetCount
C. GetItemCount

Q26. To retrieve the current the objects in your application during the run session:
A. GetVisibleText
B. GetROProperty
C. SetROProperty
D. GetTOProperty

Q27. The list of test objects and their properties and values are stored in the:
A. Object Repository
B. Object Identification

Q28. The method used to continue the test execution after getting run-time error is:
1. On Error Resume Next
2. On Error Raise Next
3. On Error Next
Answers for 2nd paper are:
1)b
2)c
3)a
4)a (module test batch)
5)e
6)b
7)
8)b
9)c
10)a
11)b
12)c
13)b
14)c
15)c
16)a
17)a
18)a
19)
20)
21)c
22)a
23)d
24)b
25)a
26)b
27)a
28)a
1.b
2.a
3.a
4.a
5.e
6.b
7.a
8.b
9.c
10.b
11.a
12.c
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.a
17.a
18.c
19.a
20.b
21.c
22.a
23.d
24.b
25.a
26.b
27.a
28.1





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Wednesday, 12 January 2011

ISTQB Foundation Level Exam Sample Paper - I


ISTQB Foundation level exam Sample paper - I
Questions
1    We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a)    Each test stage has a different purpose.
b)    It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c)    We can run different tests in different environments.
d)    The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2    Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a)    Regression testing
b)    Integration testing
c)    System testing
d)    User acceptance testing

3    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4    Which of the following requirements is testable?
a)    The system shall be user friendly.
b)    The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c)    The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d)    The system shall be built to be portable.

5    Analise the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20

ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50

ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75

ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a)    3
b)    4
c)    5
d)    6

6    Error guessing:
a)    supplements formal test design techniques.
b)    can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c)    is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d)    is not repeatable and should not be used.

7    Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a)    Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b)    A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c)    A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d)    Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8    In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:
a)    find as many faults as possible.
b)    test high risk areas.
c)    obtain good test coverage.
d)    test whatever is easiest to test.

9    Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v - test control
w - test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 -   calculation of required test resources
2 -   maintenance of record of test results
3 -   re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 -   report on deviation from test plan
5 -   tracking of anomalous test results
a)    v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b)    v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c)    v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d)    v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10    Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a)    System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b)    Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c)    Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d)    End-users should be involved in system tests.

11    Which of the following is false?
a)    Incidents should always be fixed.
b)    An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c)    Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d)    An incident can be raised against documentation.

12    Enough testing has been performed when:
a)    time runs out.
b)    the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c)    no more faults are found.
d)    the users won’t find any serious faults.

13    Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a)    Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b)    Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c)    Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d)    Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14    Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a)    syntax testing
b)    equivalence partitioning
c)    stress testing
d)    modified condition/decision coverage
15    Which of the following is false?
a)    In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b)    A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c)    A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d)    Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16    Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a)    They are used to support multi-user testing.
b)    They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c)    They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d)    They capture aspects of user behavior.

17    How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a)    Metrics from previous similar projects
b)    Discussions with the development team
c)    Time allocated for regression testing
d)    a & b

18    Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a)    It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b)    It only models the testing phase.
c)    It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d)    It includes the verification of designs.

19    The oracle assumption:
a)    is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b)    is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c)    is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d)    is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20    Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?
a)    They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b)    They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c)    Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d)    Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

21    Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a)    To find faults in the software.
b)    To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c)    To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d)    To prove that the software is correct.

22    Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a)    Boundary value analysis
b)    Usability testing
c)    Performance testing
d)    Security testing

23    Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a)    Features to be tested
b)    Incident reports
c)    Risks
d)    Schedule

24    Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a)    Test management
b)    Test design
c)    Test execution
d)    Test planning

25    Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a)    Statement testing
b)    Path testing
c)    Data flow testing
d)    State transition testing

26    Data flow analysis studies:
a)    possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b)    the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c)    the use of data on paths through the code.
d)    the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27    In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)    £1500
b)    £32001
c)    £33501
d)    £28000

28    An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a)    enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b)    can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c)    can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d)    are cheap to perform.

29    Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a)    Actual results
b)    Program specification
c)    User requirements
d)    System specification

30    What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a)    An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b)    An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c)    Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d)    A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31    Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a)    It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b)    It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c)    It reduces defect multiplication.
d)    It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32    Integration testing in the small:
a)    tests the individual components that have been developed.
b)    tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c)    only uses components that form part of the live system.
d)    tests interfaces to other systems.

33    Static analysis is best described as:
a)    the analysis of batch programs.
b)    the reviewing of test plans.
c)    the analysis of program code.
d)    the use of black box testing.

34     Alpha testing is:
a)    post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b)    the first testing that is performed.
c)    pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d)    pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35    A failure is:
a)    found in the software; the result of an error.
b)    departure from specified behavior.
c)    an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d)    a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36    In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a)    £4800; £14000; £28000
b)    £5200; £5500; £28000
c)    £28001; £32000; £35000
d)    £5800; £28000; £32000

37    The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a)    makes test preparation easier.
b)    means inspections are not required.
c)    can prevent fault multiplication.
d)    will find all faults.

38    Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a)    Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b)    Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c)    Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d)    Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39    Test cases are designed during:
a)    test recording.
b)    test planning.
c)    test configuration.
d)    test specification.

40    A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a)    linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b)    facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c)    the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d)    restricted access to the source code library.


Answers for above questions:
Question Answer
1     A
2     A
3     D
4     C
5     A
6     A
7     C
8     B
9     C
10   D
11   A
12   B
13   A
14   C
15   B
16   B
17   D
18   D
19   B
20   A
21   D
22   A
23   B
24   C
25   D
26   C
27   C
28   A
29   C
30   D
31   C
32   B
33   C
34   C
35   B
36   D
37   C
38   D
39   D
40   B

Friday, 17 December 2010

QTP - Certification Q's3



Q1. 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window.
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings

Q2. How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8

Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, WebSettings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web,Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery

Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)window
A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery

Q5. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation

Q6. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, acorresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above

Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False

Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False

Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values andinsert checkpoints
A) True
B) False

Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen informationsaved with the test.
A) True
B) False

Q11. The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:
A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors

Q12. When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTPautomatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in theinformation pane.
A) True
B) False

Q13. If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it incase a syntax error is detected.
A) True
B) False

Q14. ..................... provides a list of the resources that arespecified in your test but cannot be found.
A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane

Q15. Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automaticallychecks for the availability of specified resources.
A) True
B) False

Q16. The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.
A) True
B) False

Q17. Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command

Q18. ............... tab enables you to view the current value of anyvariable or VBScript expression.
A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current

Q19. The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that havebeen recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current

Q20. The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set ormodify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your testor function library.
A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current

Q21. Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A) True
B) False

Q22. Which of the following statement is True:
A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of testsat a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time

Q23. Which of the following statement is True:
A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time

Q24. You can open any function library, regardless of whether it isassociated with the currently open test.
A) True
B) False

Q25. You can work with multiple documents (test, component, orapplication area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box
A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows

QTP - Certification Q's2



Q1. The Command used to insert the transactions in test is:
A. StartTransaction(Name), EndTransaction(Name)
B. Services.StartTransaction "Name", Services.EndTransaction "Name"
C. StartTransaction.services "Name, EndTransaction.services "Name"

Q2. A step in which one or more values are captured at a specific point in your test and stored for the duration of the run session is:
A. Output Value
B. Checkpoints
C. Active Screen

Q3. QTP can detects an application crash and activate a defined recovery scenario to continue the run session.
A. True
B. false

Q4. In Batch Test process, the test list are saved in file format as:
A. *.mtb
B. *.mts
C. *.mbt
D. *.mtr

Q5. The command used to invoke other application from QTP:
A. InvokeApplication
B. SystemUtil.Run
C. Run
D. Both b & c
E. Both a & b

Q6. The command used to retrieve data from excel sheet is
A. Set ab = Connection("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getdata(sheetid)
B. Set ab = CreateObject("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getsheet(sheetid)
C. Set ab = GetObject("srcfilepath") , Set ws = ab.worksheets(sheetid)

Q7. The method that explicitly activates the recovery scenario mechanism is:
A. recovery.activate
B. enable
C. recovery.enable
D. activate

Q8. The method used for sending information to the test results is:
A. Reporter.log()
B. Reporter.reportevent()
C. Reporter.msgbox()
D. Reporter.report()

Q9. To terminate an application that is not responding we use:
A. SystemUtil.terminate
B. SystemUtil.Stop
C. SystemUtil.CloseProcessByName

Q10. The recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test:
A. false
B. True

Q11. We can add Test object methods, function calls into the Test using:
A. Function generator
B. Step generator
C. Object repository

Q12. The method that adds to the test while implementing synchronization is:
A. Synchronize
B. Wait
C. WaitProperty
D. Pause

Q13. The mechanism used to identify objects during run session is:
A. Recovery scenario
B. Smart identification
C. Handling object

Q14. Post-recovery test run options specifies:
A. how to continue the run session after QTP identify the event
B. errors while running
C. recovery scenario during a run session

Q15. The action that can be called multiple times by the test as well as by other tests is called:
A. non-reusable action
B. Reusable action
C. External action

Q16. The command used to connect with Database is:
A. Createobject(connectivity name
)
B. dbconnect(connectivity name)
C. open(connectivity name)
D. None of the above

Q17. The method used to retrieve the folders is:
A. FileSystemObject.Getfolder()
B. FileSystemObject.selectfolder()
C. FileSystemObject.retrievefolder()

Q18. The method used to compare 2 XML files is:
A1. XMLfile1.compare(XMLfile2)
B. XMLcompare(file1,file2)
C. compare(XMLfile1,XMLfile2)

Q19. The QTP script files are stored in the extension of:
A. *.mts
B. *.usr
C. *.mtr
D. *.vbs

Q20. The method used to register the user-defined function with test object is:
A. setFunc()
B. RegisterUserFunc()
C. RegisterFunc()

Q21. The method used to open the specified URL in a browser is:
A. openURL()
B. navigateURL()
C. navigate()

Q22. The 3 Parameter types available in data driver is:
A. DataTable,Environment,Random number
B. DataTable,random number,unique
C. environment,string,numeric

Q23. The method added to the test while parameterizing is:
A. get Data (variable, dtGlobalSheet)
B. get DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
C. Set Data(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
D. Set DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)

Q24. The length of the array can be get by the method:
A. length(array)
B. ubound(array)
C. count(array)

Q25. The method used to get the count value of list box or combo box is:
A. GetItemsCount
B. GetCount
C. GetItemCount

Q26. To retrieve the current the objects in your application during the run session:
A. GetVisibleText
B. GetROProperty
C. SetROProperty
D. GetTOProperty

Q27. The list of test objects and their properties and values are stored in the:
A. Object Repository
B. Object Identification

Q28. The method used to continue the test execution after getting run-time error is:
1. On Error Resume Next
2. On Error Raise Next
3. On Error Next
Answers for 2nd paper are:
1)b
2)c
3)a
4)a (module test batch)
5)e
6)b
7)
8)b
9)c
10)a
11)b
12)c
13)b
14)c
15)c
16)a
17)a
18)a
19)
20)
21)c
22)a
23)d
24)b
25)a
26)b
27)a
28)a
1.b
2.a
3.a
4.a
5.e
6.b
7.a
8.b
9.c
10.b
11.a
12.c
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.a
17.a
18.c
19.a
20.b
21.c
22.a
23.d
24.b
25.a
26.b
27.a
28.1